The Forum Site - Join the conversation
Forums:
Religion & Philosophy

Theist. Who is your Lord and Monarch? Satan or Jesus?

Reply to Topic
AuthorMessage
Pages: << · 1 2 3 ...9 10 11 12 13 14 · >>
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#151New Post! Nov 29, 2011 @ 09:31:07
@bob_the_fisherman Said

Really? Who were the original translators of the NWT/KIT into English? My research has shown that they tried (unsuccessfully) to hide their identity, and none of them were even slightly scholars. If you have evidence to the contrary, that would be useful.


No I have no evidence of that, not because they"hide their identity" but because I only know then as the "Translation Committee". I do know that many of them learned the languages in order to do the job.

Interestingly I have been trying to work out ever since you introduced it, what the KIT is, and I've finally sussed it, the Kingdom Interlinear Translation, lol. I did have a copy once, but I only used it to check it against Benjamin Wilson's Emphatic Diaglott, which is the only interlinear I ever use. When it disappeared it was in pristine condition and I never bothered replacing it.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Indeed. I try to avoid this kind of thing, as it is poor ethics.


Yes we all do but it is often unavoidable due to lack of space, after all my replies are usually wordy enough, lol, but then that is why I usually provide a reference so others can check it's context for themselves. Part of my Open University training as well.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

This is, I must admit, a simplistic way of seeking to transliterate a language. Depending on what part of speech a particular word takes in a sentence, its form often changes eg., ran, run, runs, running.

Now, I do not even pretend to be close to an expert on this stuff - the extremely limited understanding of language I have, comes from philosophy, and the knowledge I have that English is a pitiful language (which is why we steal words from other languages, like "dasein" for example)... anyway, as scholars regularly point out in relation to John 1:1, the wording is exact, and specific. It says the word was *with* God - meaning, that the word and God are not identical, but, the word *was* God, meaning, sharing the same essence, though not being the same.


I don't think English so much steals words from other languages, as is made up of other languages, after all we are something of a mongrel races with so many European races making up the "English", which is why these "England for the English" nuts amuse me so. What really are "The English", lol. (apparently in the 16th century the French ladies used "I'm being visited by the English" to denote their usual monthly event, lol).

Yss you are right, English is a limited language, which is why it is often ambiguous and too easy to misunderstand word usage. However4 all that means is that we have to be much more careful about understanding what is written.

As for God's son being of the "same substance" as God, well he is a spirit being, as God is, and as the more accurate, or should I say less simplistic, literal versions put it "of divine nature" or "a god like one". I have no pick with that, and neither would any experienced JW, for two reasons. Firstly all the angels are also, as are those resurrected to heavenly life, and secondly I believe that everything was manufactured from God's very substance anyway so the same can also be said to apply to us and everything around us. After all, when there was nothing but God, what did He have to use but His own substance to create things from?

The major difference is that in the first instance he was not immortal whereas God is. If that were not true the ransom sacrifice would have been nothing but a confidence trick. However he is now because of hie faithful obedience, as are those with the heavenly hope once resurrected. That is, of course the reason they have to be tasted more thoroughly than we of the earthly hope. What does immortality mean? Since God can if He wishes destroy anything He made all it can mean is God's solemn promise that they never will be destroyed, and He never breaks His promises.

So I have no pick with "the same substance" part, it is only the co-equal and co-eternal which are so misguided.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Now, you may argue that this is incomprehensible, however, I believe your own text points out that God appeared in human form here;

Genesis 18:1 "Afterward Jehovah appeared to him among the big trees of Mam´re, while he was sitting at the entrance of the tent about the heat of the day. 2 When he raised his eyes, then he looked and there three men were standing some distance from him. When he caught sight of them he began running to meet them from the entrance of the tent and proceeded to bow down to the earth. 3 Then he said: “Jehovah, if, now, I have found favor in your eyes, please do not pass by your servant." [NWT] Taken from https://www.watchtower.org/e/bible/ge/chapter_018.htm

If we accept your premise regarding God, must we accept that all of that which is God was, at the time he appeared to Abraham in human form, contained in the human form that Abraham saw? Is there any reason to assume that this is so? (And this is without considering what God said to Moses regarding how seeing God in his true form would be fatal for a man). Whilst this does not prove the trinity, it shows, according to your own bible, that God is able to appear in the form of a man.


Only one problem with that.

Jesus was most emphatic that "No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him" (John 1:18).

Was Jesus lying Never may that be. So how do we understand what is written in your quote, because it is an accurate quote? To me it is simple. Since God is invisible and cannot be seen by man what was being seen on these occasions? I believe that it has to have been an angel, or in this case three, appearing on Jehovah's instructions. The fact that the writer thought it was Jehovah, and was never disabused of that thought only means that God was in no hurry to reveal it. After all, there have been many things in the bible which could not be understood at the time, but have since been revealed with the aid of Holy Spirit.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

A transliteration of John 1:1 can be found here: https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh1.pdf


Apparently it is not "scriptiure for all", lol, all I got for clicking on your link was "403 Forbidden".



@bob_the_fisherman Said

This is true, however, the bible also speaks of Christ being God - I know you do not like it, but your own annotated KIT for Exodus 3:14 transliterates the Hebrew into Greek as "ego eimi" , and has, in the English notes, "I am" - the same thing Christ called himself in John 8:58.

And again, when Jesus called himself the "son of God" the Jews understood precisely what he was saying, which is why they wanted to kill him. Paul speaks of how Christ humbled himself, and became lower than God - that is, put himself, as Christ, in subjection to God (Phill 2:6-8).


How about the Emphatic Diaglott's version "6 who in a form of God being, not a usurpation meditated the to be like to God, 7 but himself emptied, a form of a slave having taken, in a likeness of men having been formed, 8 and in condition being found as a man; humbled himself, having become obedient till death, of a death even of a cross."

It was because he clarified that eh was calling himself the son of god that they had to put the stones down again, they were trying to make ut that he was calling himself God but the watching crowds wouldn't have worn it in that case as we are all sons of god. Yes the Scribes and Pharisees, knew who he really was, and that was why they were so afraid of him. In fact in the very same sense that the early apostate Christian church tried so hard to hide the bible from the people because if they understood it they would know what liars these apostates were.

He made it clear more than once that his mission was to pull the Scribes and Pharisees rug, and followers, from under them.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

True, but he also said the work he does is the work of the father, and referred to himself as lord of the Sabbath - again, the Jews knew what this meant. They tried to kill him because he claimed not only to be equal with God, but because he claimed to be God.


I don;t see how you get that from there. To me it is very simple. Jesus was and is the Lord of the Sabbath in that ever since God#s Sabbath, the day of rest, started, he has been put in charge of all dealings to do with now imperfect humans, and he will continue to be so until he hands the kingdom back to his Father at the end of that day of rest, that Sabbath, when mankind is once again perfect and God can again deal with us directly. There is not claim to be equal with God, simply that God has given him authority to work on His behalf.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

It doesn't really. If we consider the text as a whole - if Jesus did not claim to be God, he had many chances to tell the Jews that they had it wrong - remember, they told him they wanted to kill him *because* he claimed to be God. He never told them they were mistaken - he merely said things like, "I and the father are one."


And yet many time he told them he was in subjection to the Father. Yes he and his father were, and are one, but in what sense? one in being or one in purpose. The latter is born out by his denying that he can do anything of his own initiative, as he also told the Jews. No, as scripture tells us he made it very plain to all that he was not, and was not claiming to be, equal to his father, much to the frustration of the Scribes and Pharisees.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

But, the rules of language are fundamentally important when seeking to extract the true meaning of a text. And, no, logic tells us nothing of the sort you suggest here.

[... I have edited out the ED to avoid this getting too long. That text is not considered reliable. Not even the JWs do, which is why they created their own.


And yet now they publish and promote it? Would they do so if they considered it unreliable. (incidentally my copy of the ED is not one they published, though I have seen them, mine is an online version in .pdf now).

Of course others claim it is unreliable because it exposes their teaching as lies and they can't have that can they.

It is almost impossible for either of us to quote completely unbiased sources. The vast majority were put out by ones who, like you, wish to prove the trinity, so they are going to latch on to anything that promotes it, just as you and I do in our own conversations. This is where unbiased thought is so important, and whilst mine is biased now, it wasn't in the first instance until I became convinced there was no real alternative, and that was well before I met the JW's.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

What? Jesus said words to the effect of, "Honestly I say to you, today you will be with me in paradise." This type of preface to a statement is one Jesus used often. And, in all instances it is transliterated as, "honestly I say to you [comma] ..." Apparently, the JW bible has a concordance at the back, and, in there, it has a list of times where Jesus says "Honestly I say to you,". I cannot verify this, but apparently, the instance we speak of here is one of, if not the, only times the comma does not occur after "I say to you".


No the concordance is a totally separate publication, it is too big to put at the back.

Again you see the others are all interpreted by ones wishing to prove something, and making them look stupid by doing so because to put the comma where they do in their case makes the statement a lie.

The problem comes about because Koine Greek had no punctuation and so relied on the understanding of the reader to know where to put it.

@bob_the_fisherman Said
This does not prove the JWs wrong, but it does show inconsistency in their translation. And, apart from that, how does Jesus saying to one person, you will be with me today in paradise, create a contradiction?

Anyway, I will leave this here - our posts could easily become epics if we do not limit our discussion...


Yes, they could couldn't they, lol, and as long as you are not slandering the JWs I enjoy them. I don't care what you think of me, but others I will defend to the hilt if needed.

Simple, because Jesus himself wouldn't be in Heaven for some days anyway, and until Jesus was taken up into Heaven after his return to the earth, the covenant was not completed as Jesus had to go back to heaven to present the value of his perfect human life to his Father before the covenant was sealed. Therefore the one he spoke to would not be under that covenant and would have the earthly hope not the heavenly one, which is why Jesus said "paradise" not "Heaven", because the paradise is on earth and has yet to be re-established. Therefore to say anything other than "truly I tell you today, you will be with me in paradise" would be a lie, and Jesus never lied.

The one Jesus spoke to would therefore be a part of the "second resurrection" onto the hearth in the near future.
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#152New Post! Nov 29, 2011 @ 09:52:26
PS, I've just remembered there is a sort of mini concordance at the back as well as a guide to certain topics and the scripture around them. Sorry I had forgotten about that. I don't use it very often, lol, I use the online or on disc version most.
bob_the_fisherman On January 30, 2023
Anatidaephobic





, Angola
#153New Post! Nov 30, 2011 @ 06:16:07
@MadCornishBiker Said

No I have no evidence of that, not because they"hide their identity" but because I only know then as the "Translation Committee". I do know that many of them learned the languages in order to do the job.


Fair enough. Learning the languages and "being a scholar" are so far removed from each other, that they should not be rightly used in the same sentence. I could "learn" the Greek language by relying on interlinear translations, the translations of others, and Greek to English dictionaries - this is not a legitimate way to approach the text.

@MadCornishBiker Said
Interestingly I have been trying to work out ever since you introduced it, what the KIT is, and I've finally sussed it, the Kingdom Interlinear Translation, lol. I did have a copy once, but I only used it to check it against Benjamin Wilson's Emphatic Diaglott, which is the only interlinear I ever use. When it disappeared it was in pristine condition and I never bothered replacing it.


My bad - I just assumed you would know... And yes, it is the Kingdom Interlinear Translation. That is the one that says in the notes to Exodus 3:14 that God's words to Moses are, "ego eimi" which in turn is rendered as "I am" in their notes.

@MadCornishBiker Said
As for God's son being of the "same substance" as God, well he is a spirit being, as God is, and as the more accurate, or should I say less simplistic, literal versions put it "of divine nature" or "a god like one". I have no pick with that, and neither would any experienced JW, for two reasons. Firstly all the angels are also, as are those resurrected to heavenly life, and secondly I believe that everything was manufactured from God's very substance anyway so the same can also be said to apply to us and everything around us. After all, when there was nothing but God, what did He have to use but His own substance to create things from?


I am not sure what you are saying here. Are you suggesting that God cannot make substances that are not of himself? You say elsewhere that God is invisible, yet, has God not created a visible universe? I am sure that when I open my eyes, I see things that are both visible, and have mass. Am I wrong? Or again, maybe I am misunderstanding you...?

@MadCornishBiker Said
The major difference is that in the first instance he was not immortal whereas God is. If that were not true the ransom sacrifice would have been nothing but a confidence trick. However he is now because of hie faithful obedience, as are those with the heavenly hope once resurrected. That is, of course the reason they have to be tasted more thoroughly than we of the earthly hope. What does immortality mean? Since God can if He wishes destroy anything He made all it can mean is God's solemn promise that they never will be destroyed, and He never breaks His promises.


Well, as I understand the JW schema, the actual resurrection was a confidence trick anyway. As I understand it, JWs attest that Christ was not resurrected. That is to say, when Christ died, his body was not resurrected - so, the body that was Christ's was, and still is, dead. Correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't it a JW belief that Jesus is not Jesus at all now, but some glorified form of his 'previous self' - Michael?

The belief has absolutely no merit, and makes Christ a liar, but I am lead to understand that the JWs believe it anyway. Jesus went to Thomas and asked him to place his hands inside the wounds in Christ's body that were the result of his crucifixion. He did this, in order that Thomas would believe that Christ - the one that died, had been resurrected. If the JW schema is true, Jesus at that point lied to and deceived not only Thomas, but all those people who would later believe in him. And, of course, as Paul says, if Christ was not resurrected, our faith is in vain, pointless, and we are still dead in our sins.

Perhaps my understanding is wrong though. If you could help by explaining the relation of Michael to Jesus, both before Jesus was born, and, after Jesus' death, I would be much obliged.

@MadCornishBiker Said
So I have no pick with "the same substance" part, it is only the co-equal and co-eternal which are so misguided.


From your perspective it may appear misguided, but, your perspective appears equally so from mine.

@MadCornishBiker Said
Jesus was most emphatic that "No man has seen God at any time; the only-begotten god who is in the bosom [position] with the Father is the one that has explained him" (John 1:18).

Was Jesus lying Never may that be. So how do we understand what is written in your quote, because it is an accurate quote? To me it is simple. Since God is invisible and cannot be seen by man what was being seen on these occasions? I believe that it has to have been an angel, or in this case three, appearing on Jehovah's instructions. The fact that the writer thought it was Jehovah, and was never disabused of that thought only means that God was in no hurry to reveal it. After all, there have been many things in the bible which could not be understood at the time, but have since been revealed with the aid of Holy Spirit.


Genesis 18:13 "Then Jehovah said to Abraham: “Why was it that Sarah laughed, saying, ‘Shall I really and truly give birth although I have become old?’" [NWT] From https://www.watchtower.org/e/bible/ge/chapter_018.htm

This verse is not written from the perspective of Abraham, yet still refers to Abraham speaking to Jehovah. Thus, either the bible itself lied, or, Abraham spoke to God, as this verse clearly says that the person to whom Abraham spoke was Jehovah - and indeed, other sections of this passage reinforce this fact. For example, in verses 17-19, the text tells us what Jehovah was thinking, regarding telling Abraham of the impending destruction of Sodom. The text neither says, nor implies, that it was an angel - and indeed, if you read the NWT, it says that the other two with him were angels. That is, it was indisputably Jehovah, not an angel that Abraham saw and spoke to - on this, the text is unequivocal.

But, yes, you are correct that no man has, according to Jesus, seen God the father. Abraham saw God, but the God he saw was not the Father. This is a problem, no doubt, for those who deny certain elements of the Christian faith. As there is only one God, it cannot be another God, it can only *be* God, but it *cannot* be God the Father. So, which God did he see? (and, we could also speculate on the God from whom Adam and Eve sought to hide, as he walked through the garden calling out to and looking for them).

@MadCornishBiker Said
Apparently it is not "scriptiure for all", lol, all I got for clicking on your link was "403 Forbidden".


Well, just type scripture4all into Google, that should get you there... For some reason the link doesn't work - I can't even get there from the link. Maybe because it is a pdf file...

@MadCornishBiker Said
How about the Emphatic Diaglott's version "6 who in a form of God being, not a usurpation meditated the to be like to God, 7 but himself emptied, a form of a slave having taken, in a likeness of men having been formed, 8 and in condition being found as a man; humbled himself, having become obedient till death, of a death even of a cross."


Well, the problem with the ED is that it was translated by a guy who was no scholar, did not speak the biblical languages, and merely sought to create a bible that recognised his Unitarian belief - namely, Benjamin Wilson. And, in turn, his bible was based on the equally incorrect bible of J.J Greisbach.

The reason Russell used it initially was because it fitted with many of his biases, not because that bible is in any way valid. Even in that quote, there is one thing that the JWs did away with - the last word, "cross."

@MadCornishBiker Said
It was because he clarified that eh was calling himself the son of god that they had to put the stones down again, they were trying to make ut that he was calling himself God but the watching crowds wouldn't have worn it in that case as we are all sons of god.


And again, this shows a lack of understanding of what the Jews knew that to mean. The Jews understood 'the son of', as being, 'of the same essence as', or, 'being equal to'. For example, I am the son of my father, and I am equal to, and of the same essence and nature as, him.

@MadCornishBiker Said
Yes the Scribes and Pharisees, knew who he really was, and that was why they were so afraid of him. In fact in the very same sense that the early apostate Christian church tried so hard to hide the bible from the people because if they understood it they would know what liars these apostates were.


Yes, it is true that the Catholic church in the dark ages hid the bible - in fact, they killed Christians during that time, as having a bible was punishable by death. This occurred during the practice of what they called "The Mystery" as I understand it.

@MadCornishBiker Said
He made it clear more than once that his mission was to pull the Scribes and Pharisees rug, and followers, from under them.


No. His mission was to bring about the New Covenant, and reconcile man to God. I am certain that Christ wanted the Jews to repent and turn from their false religion - they had changed the commandments of God into the doctrines of men. So infatuated with obeying rules, and scouring the religious text seeking eternal life, they had forgotten about the author of eternal life. They may have been the first to do this, but they certainly were not the last.

The biblical prophecies of Christ make it pretty clear what was going to happen to the Christ, and why it was going to happen. Pulling the rug from under the Jewish leaders never entered into it. It was about redeeming mankind, not punishing legalistic Jews who thought that works was the way to salvation.

And, on that subject: For any human to think they can please God by working, is for them to misunderstand the depth of human sin, the holiness of God, the perfection of His moral law, and the impossibility of anyone, Jew, Christian, or Jehoavah's Witness, becoming "good enough" to earn salvation. On this, there can be no doubt. The standard required is simply this; perfection. Yet, humans are quite simply incapable of this. But today, like the Jews, the JWs think that by doing enough work, and being 'good enough', they can earn their salvation. The bible repudiates this repeatedly. Salvation is a gift, it is not a thing we must earn through working.

@MadCornishBiker Said
I don;t see how you get that from there. To me it is very simple. Jesus was and is the Lord of the Sabbath in that ever since God#s Sabbath, the day of rest, started, he has been put in charge of all dealings to do with now imperfect humans, and he will continue to be so until he hands the kingdom back to his Father at the end of that day of rest, that Sabbath, when mankind is once again perfect and God can again deal with us directly. There is not claim to be equal with God, simply that God has given him authority to work on His behalf.


Clearly, you and I read this differently. When the Jews claimed he blasphemed by making himself equal with God, he at no time sought to show that they misunderstood him - again, he said, "I and the Father are one." Now, in saying this, is he trying to show that he was not God, or, was he saying to them that, "I and the father are one"? The way you interpret this simply does not fit with the facts.

@MadCornishBiker Said
And yet many time he told them he was in subjection to the Father. Yes he and his father were, and are one, but in what sense? one in being or one in purpose. The latter is born out by his denying that he can do anything of his own initiative, as he also told the Jews. No, as scripture tells us he made it very plain to all that he was not, and was not claiming to be, equal to his father, much to the frustration of the Scribes and Pharisees.


What? Are you saying the Pharisees wanted to kill him because he refuted their claim that he was equal to God, despite wanting to kill him for saying that he was equal with God?

@MadCornishBiker Said
And yet now they publish and promote it? Would they do so if they considered it unreliable. (incidentally my copy of the ED is not one they published, though I have seen them, mine is an online version in .pdf now).


Well, in so far as it carries the same doctrinal errors as their own bible - especially in denying the deity of Christ, it is probably in their interest to promulgate it as a legitimate bible to some extent. But, if the ED is so right and good, why did they stop using it? Why create their own version - especially when none of them were qualified to do so?

@MadCornishBiker Said
Of course others claim it is unreliable because it exposes their teaching as lies and they can't have that can they.


No, they claim it is unreliable because it is. Wilson was not a scholar, nor was he unbiased. And, by your own admission (though inadvertently), neither is the JW bible. In relation to Jesus statement to the thief on the cross, you said yourself that the JWs interpret this passage differently than other times that Jesus said, "Honestly I say to you," because if they interpret this consistently, it says a thing that they disagree with. This is a clear example of doctrinal issues clouding the translation. A repeated idiom of the speaker, Christ, is in this case altered to fit with the JW belief. This is not valid.

@MadCornishBiker Said
It is almost impossible for either of us to quote completely unbiased sources. The vast majority were put out by ones who, like you, wish to prove the trinity, so they are going to latch on to anything that promotes it, just as you and I do in our own conversations. This is where unbiased thought is so important, and whilst mine is biased now, it wasn't in the first instance until I became convinced there was no real alternative, and that was well before I met the JW's.


But, this is simply false. There is *no* objective knowledge about metaphysical facts available to humans pertaining to things external to themselves. We are biased. We are prone to being wrong. You and I are both in the same boat here.

@MadCornishBiker Said
No the concordance is a totally separate publication, it is too big to put at the back.
Again you see the others are all interpreted by ones wishing to prove something, and making them look stupid by doing so because to put the comma where they do in their case makes the statement a lie.
The problem comes about because Koine Greek had no punctuation and so relied on the understanding of the reader to know where to put it.


It is true that the Koine Greek lacked punctuation, however, this only reinforces the fact that the JWs let doctrinal considerations cloud their translation. When Jesus said, "Honestly I say to you [comma]" on several occasions, there is no reason to interpolate a change in his particular idiom solely on the basis that it does not fit with a doctrine held by the translators. This is totally biased, and is just one easily demonstrable example of poor scholarship on behalf of the JWs.

@MadCornishBiker Said
Yes, they could couldn't they, lol, and as long as you are not slandering the JWs I enjoy them. I don't care what you think of me, but others I will defend to the hilt if needed.


Again, I do not slander them. I question their integrity because the Christian belief demands the questioning of leaders. Paul told people to look at and consider the ways of church leaders. Well, I will obey Paul in this instance, and do that. What I find in my investigation, is people whose integrity is questionable, and whose honesty has been shown to be less than complete. Again, refer to the Mantey letter.

The JWs used him totally out of context, to support a doctrine his work rejected and refuted outright. This is, at best, a huge slight on their academic abilities if not their honesty. But the fact they also misquoted Robertson, Granville Sharp and Colwell means their integrity is shot anyway - whether it be through a lack of scholastic and intellectual rigour (in which case they had no right translating the bible and claiming it is authoritative), or, through blatant dishonesty in that they deliberately misquoted scholars. Either way, they simply do not stand up to a moment of scrutiny, and for church leaders, this ought not to be. They disqualify themselves on this basis alone.

@MadCornishBiker Said
Simple, because Jesus himself wouldn't be in Heaven for some days anyway, and until Jesus was taken up into Heaven after his return to the earth, the covenant was not completed as Jesus had to go back to heaven to present the value of his perfect human life to his Father before the covenant was sealed.


And, this too, is further evidence of rendering the text according to bias, not according to what the text says.
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#154New Post! Nov 30, 2011 @ 16:00:27
@bob_the_fisherman Said

Fair enough. Learning the languages and "being a scholar" are so far removed from each other, that they should not be rightly used in the same sentence. I could "learn" the Greek language by relying on interlinear translations, the translations of others, and Greek to English dictionaries - this is not a legitimate way to approach the text.


And yet you have no idea how they learned the languages, or who they studied them with or under. A dangerous assumption.

Incidentally the Translation committee are as anonymous as the authors of the Watchtower articles and the books.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

My bad - I just assumed you would know... And yes, it is the Kingdom Interlinear Translation. That is the one that says in the notes to Exodus 3:14 that God's words to Moses are, "ego eimi" which in turn is rendered as "I am" in their notes.


That was a fair enough assumption, lol.

The KIT can hardly render Exodus 3:14 as anything since it is only of the Christian Greek Scriptures. You cannot have an interlinear Hebrew English text as Hebrew works in the opposite direction to English. However the NWT footnote on Exodus 3:14 says:-

"“I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE.” Heb., ? ? ? (?Eh?yeh? ?Asher? ?Eh?yeh?), God’s own self-designation; Leeser, “I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE”; Rotherham, “I Will Become whatsoever I please.” Gr., E?go? ei?mi ho on, “I am The Being,” or, “I am The Existing One”; Lat., e?go sum qui sum, “I am Who I am.” ?Eh?yeh? comes from the Heb. verb ha?yah?, “become; prove to be.” Here ?Eh?yeh? is in the imperfect state, first person sing., meaning “I shall become”; or, “I shall prove to be.” The reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others. Compare Ge 2:4 ftn, “Jehovah,” where the kindred, but different, Heb. verb ha?wah? appears in the divine name."

The footnote on John 8:58 point to an appendix in the reference edition which reads:-

"Jesus—In Existence Before Abraham
Joh 8:58—“before Abraham came into existence, I have been”
Gr., ???? ??????? ???????? ??? ????
(prin A?bra?am? ge?ne?sthai e?go? ei?mi?)
Fourth/Fifth “before Abraham was, Syriac—Edition:
Century I have been” A Translation of the Four
Gospels from the Syriac of
the Sinaitic Palimpsest,
by Agnes Smith Lewis,
London, 1894.
Fifth Century “before ever Abraham Curetonian Syriac—Edition:
came to be, I was” The Curetonian Version of
the Four Gospels, by
F.Crawford Burkitt, Vol. 1,
Cambridge, England, 1904.
Fifth Century “before Abraham Syriac Pes***ta—Edition:
existed, I was” The Syriac New Testament
Translated into English
from the Pes***to Version,
by James Murdock, seventh
ed., Boston and London,
1896.
Fifth Century “before Abraham Georgian—Edition:
came to be, I was” “The Old Georgian Version
of the Gospel of John,” by
Robert P. Blake and Maurice
Brière, published in
Patrologia Orientalis,
Vol. XXVI, fascicle 4,
Paris, 1950.
Sixth Century “before Abraham Ethiopic—Edition:
was born, I was” Novum Testamentum . . .
Æthiopice (The New
Testament . . . in
Ethiopic), by Thomas Pell
Platt, revised by F.
Praetorius, Leipzig, 1899."


@bob_the_fisherman Said

I am not sure what you are saying here. Are you suggesting that God cannot make substances that are not of himself? You say elsewhere that God is invisible, yet, has God not created a visible universe? I am sure that when I open my eyes, I see things that are both visible, and have mass. Am I wrong? Or again, maybe I am misunderstanding you...?


What I am saying is that everything in existence is made, in the first instance, from Gods very substance. It has to be as before that there was nothing but God, which leaves no other alternative. It does sort of fit in with Einstein's E=MC2 idea that everything is made up of energy, which is basically what God's substance is.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

Well, as I understand the JW schema, the actual resurrection was a confidence trick anyway. As I understand it, JWs attest that Christ was not resurrected. That is to say, when Christ died, his body was not resurrected - so, the body that was Christ's was, and still is, dead. Correct me if I'm wrong, but isn't it a JW belief that Jesus is not Jesus at all now, but some glorified form of his 'previous self' - Michael?

The belief has absolutely no merit, and makes Christ a liar, but I am lead to understand that the JWs believe it anyway. Jesus went to Thomas and asked him to place his hands inside the wounds in Christ's body that were the result of his crucifixion. He did this, in order that Thomas would believe that Christ - the one that died, had been resurrected. If the JW schema is true, Jesus at that point lied to and deceived not only Thomas, but all those people who would later believe in him. And, of course, as Paul says, if Christ was not resurrected, our faith is in vain, pointless, and we are still dead in our sins.

Perhaps my understanding is wrong though. If you could help by explaining the relation of Michael to Jesus, both before Jesus was born, and, after Jesus' death, I would be much obliged.


It seems you don't fully understand it. The JW belief, and mine, is that Jesus did have a resurrection into a human body, though judging from that fact that his intimate associates didn't recognise him after that resurrection until either they were told, or they realised that his mannerisms and speech was the same it seems apparent that it was not his original body. That also fits in with the biblical promise of a general resurrection onto the earth of the masses. They will all have to be given new bodies since theirs will have disintegrated long ago.

However it is unlikely to happen in the form that the churches believed in the 19th century, when it was believed that the dead would simply pop up out of their graves. This is why in some older churchyards the flock were buried with their heads to the west and the clergy were buried with their heads to the east so they would pop-up facing their flock.

The fact that none of the others had seen Jesus "stigmata" also tends to indicate that he had the power to make them appear to satisfy Thomas. No wonder the man was so surprised.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

From your perspective it may appear misguided, but, your perspective appears equally so from mine.



@bob_the_fisherman Said

Genesis 18:13 "Then Jehovah said to Abraham: “Why was it that Sarah laughed, saying, ‘Shall I really and truly give birth although I have become old?’" [NWT] From https://www.watchtower.org/e/bible/ge/chapter_018.htm

This verse is not written from the perspective of Abraham, yet still refers to Abraham speaking to Jehovah. Thus, either the bible itself lied, or, Abraham spoke to God, as this verse clearly says that the person to whom Abraham spoke was Jehovah - and indeed, other sections of this passage reinforce this fact. For example, in verses 17-19, the text tells us what Jehovah was thinking, regarding telling Abraham of the impending destruction of Sodom. The text neither says, nor implies, that it was an angel - and indeed, if you read the NWT, it says that the other two with him were angels. That is, it was indisputably Jehovah, not an angel that Abraham saw and spoke to - on this, the text is unequivocal.


There are many instances where Jehovah is said to have appeared, or spoken to someone, or even have done something. There is nothing deceitful in that, it simply means that whichever spirit creature it was had Jehovah's full authority and that they were Jehovah's words not his own.

This also fits in with the strong suggestion that God cannot deal with mankind directly since the fall from perfection. The 7th creative day, God's day of rest, was started at that time and for the reason, and has never been closed. Paul even intimated that Christians would be joining in that rest. The day of rest is apparently not to end until the reigning Christ hands the kingdom over to his Father at the end of the 1000 year reign. That doesn't mean that Jesus will no longer be king, but that God will again be able to deal with man. As Revelation tells us at Revelation 21:1-4?"And I saw a new heaven and a new earth; for the former heaven and the former earth had passed away, and the sea is no more. 2 I saw also the holy city, New Jerusalem, coming down out of heaven from God and prepared as a bride adorned for her husband. 3 With that I heard a loud voice from the throne say: “Look! The tent of God is with mankind, and he will reside with them, and they will be his peoples. And God himself will be with them. 4 And he will wipe out every tear from their eyes, and death will be no more, neither will mourning nor outcry nor pain be anymore. The former things have passed away.”

As for Jesus and Michael. The easiest way to do that is to copy and paste from the Insight book on Michael:-

"1. The only holy angel other than Gabriel named in the Bible, and the only one called “archangel.” (Jude 9) The first occurrence of the name is in the tenth chapter of Daniel, where Michael is described as “one of the foremost princes”; he came to the aid of a lesser angel who was opposed by “the prince of the royal realm of Persia.” Michael was called “the prince of [Daniel’s] people,” “the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of [Daniel’s] people.” (Da 10:13, 20, 21; 12:1) This points to Michael as the angel who led the Israelites through the wilderness. (Ex 23:20, 21, 23; 32:34; 33:2) Lending support to this conclusion is the fact that “Michael the archangel had a difference with the Devil and was disputing about Moses’ body.”—Jude 9.
Scriptural evidence indicates that the name Michael applied to God’s Son before he left heaven to become Jesus Christ and also after his return. Michael is the only one said to be “the archangel,” meaning “chief angel,” or “principal angel.” The term occurs in the Bible only in the singular. This seems to imply that there is but one whom God has designated chief, or head, of the angelic host. At 1 Thessalonians 4:16 the voice of the resurrected Lord Jesus Christ is described as being that of an archangel, suggesting that he is, in fact, himself the archangel. This text depicts him as descending from heaven with “a commanding call.” It is only logical, therefore, that the voice expressing this commanding call be described by a word that would not diminish or detract from the great authority that Christ Jesus now has as King of kings and Lord of lords. (Mt 28:18; Re 17:14) If the designation “archangel” applied, not to Jesus Christ, but to other angels, then the reference to “an archangel’s voice” would not be appropriate. In that case it would be describing a voice of lesser authority than that of the Son of God.
There are also other correspondencies establishing that Michael is actually the Son of God. Daniel, after making the first reference to Michael (Da 10:13), recorded a prophecy reaching down to “the time of the end” (Da 11:40) and then stated: “And during that time Michael will stand up, the great prince who is standing in behalf of the sons of [Daniel’s] people.” (Da 12:1) Michael’s ‘standing up’ was to be associated with “a time of distress such as has not been made to occur since there came to be a nation until that time.” (Da 12:1) In Daniel’s prophecy, ‘standing up’ frequently refers to the action of a king, either taking up his royal power or acting effectively in his capacity as king. (Da 11:2-4, 7, 16b, 20, 21) This supports the conclusion that Michael is Jesus Christ, since Jesus is Jehovah’s appointed King, commissioned to destroy all the nations at Har–Magedon.—Re 11:15; 16:14-16.
The book of Revelation (12:7, 10, 12) specifically mentions Michael in connection with the establishment of God’s Kingdom and links this event with trouble for the earth: “And war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels battled with the dragon, and the dragon and its angels battled. And I heard a loud voice in heaven say: ‘Now have come to pass the salvation and the power and the kingdom of our God and the authority of his Christ, because the accuser of our brothers has been hurled down . . . On this account be glad, you heavens and you who reside in them! Woe for the earth and for the sea.’” Jesus Christ is later depicted as leading the heavenly armies in war against the nations of the earth. (Re 19:11-16) This would mean a period of distress for them, which would logically be included in the “time of distress” that is associated with Michael’s standing up. (Da 12:1) Since the Son of God is to fight the nations, it is only reasonable that he was the one who with his angels earlier battled against the superhuman dragon, Satan the Devil, and his angels.
In his prehuman existence Jesus was called “the Word.” (Joh 1:1) He also had the personal name Michael. By retaining the name Jesus after his resurrection (Ac 9:5), “the Word” shows that he is identical with the Son of God on earth. His resuming his heavenly name Michael and his title (or name) “The Word of God” (Re 19:13) ties him in with his prehuman existence. The very name Michael, asking as it does, “Who Is Like God?” points to the fact that Jehovah God is without like, or equal, and that Michael his archangel is his great Champion or Vindicator"


@bob_the_fisherman Said

But, yes, you are correct that no man has, according to Jesus, seen God the father. Abraham saw God, but the God he saw was not the Father. This is a problem, no doubt, for those who deny certain elements of the Christian faith. As there is only one God, it cannot be another God, it can only *be* God, but it *cannot* be God the Father. So, which God did he see? (and, we could also speculate on the God from whom Adam and Eve sought to hide, as he walked through the garden calling out to and looking for them).


One assumes that the God that Adam and Eve hid from was Jehovah himself as He had not gone into his day of rest at that point (see explanation above).

As for being only one god that is not entirely true. The bible names many gods, such as Dagon and Molech, calls men god's at one point and even calls Satan, the God of this system of things".

In John 1:1 according to some translations Jesus is also called a god.

However, as Paul says, at 1 Corinthians 8:5,6 "For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him."

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Well, just type scripture4all into Google, that should get you there... For some reason the link doesn't work - I can't even get there from the link. Maybe because it is a pdf file...



Well, the problem with the ED is that it was translated by a guy who was no scholar, did not speak the biblical languages, and merely sought to create a bible that recognised his Unitarian belief - namely, Benjamin Wilson. And, in turn, his bible was based on the equally incorrect bible of J.J Greisbach.

The reason Russell used it initially was because it fitted with many of his biases, not because that bible is in any way valid. Even in that quote, there is one thing that the JWs did away with - the last word, "cross."


It is interesting that you say that. Have you actually read an ED with both the interlinear and the English in two different columns. If you do you will find that while it has the literal meaning in the interlinear part it is changed for the bit that is English only, showing clear bias, towards you viewpoint. It makes it so obvious it is ridiculous.

You call those translations inaccurate? I say it is the other translations that are inaccurate, because like the doctored section of the ED they are translated to prove a point, and an apostate one at that.

As I say, all the evidence either of us can provide is biased one way or the other, so one has to pick ones way very carefully through it.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

And again, this shows a lack of understanding of what the Jews knew that to mean. The Jews understood 'the son of', as being, 'of the same essence as', or, 'being equal to'. For example, I am the son of my father, and I am equal to, and of the same essence and nature as, him.


Did they? well in that case they were right, as I have explained elsewhere in answer to you. However it does not mean being the same person, and never could by any twist of the language. I doubt very much if the Jews believed that either, especially since they were awaiting the son of God. The common people certainly didn't.

There is no way on earth you could be equal to your father, certainly not in Jewish eyes then or now. In Jewish and Christian households the husband and father are the head of the household.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Yes, it is true that the Catholic church in the dark ages hid the bible - in fact, they killed Christians during that time, as having a bible was punishable by death. This occurred during the practice of what they called "The Mystery" as I understand it.


They still do call the trinity a mystery as do the CoE. I know because3 when trying to discuss it with Priests and vicars that si what they always tell me "it is a mystery we aren't meant to understand it".


@bob_the_fisherman Said

No. His mission was to bring about the New Covenant, and reconcile man to God. I am certain that Christ wanted the Jews to repent and turn from their false religion - they had changed the commandments of God into the doctrines of men. So infatuated with obeying rules, and scouring the religious text seeking eternal life, they had forgotten about the author of eternal life. They may have been the first to do this, but they certainly were not the last.


That was part of his mission, yes, but his mission had many different aspects, the covenant for a kingdom didn't come into it until what is often called "the last supper".

They were far from the first, or the last. The prophesied Apostacy which resulted in the Catholic Church and all it's offshoots has done exactly the same bringing teachings such as eternal torment in hell, the trinity, and other teachings from false religion into the mix.

@bob_the_fisherman Said
The biblical prophecies of Christ make it pretty clear what was going to happen to the Christ, and why it was going to happen. Pulling the rug from under the Jewish leaders never entered into it. It was about redeeming mankind, not punishing legalistic Jews who thought that works was the way to salvation.


Pulling the rug from under the religious leaders was part of it though, because what I meant by that was taking away their followers, though of course any of them that chose to join in would be welcome.

@bob_the_fisherman Said
And, on that subject: For any human to think they can please God by working, is for them to misunderstand the depth of human sin, the holiness of God, the perfection of His moral law, and the impossibility of anyone, Jew, Christian, or Jehoavah's Witness, becoming "good enough" to earn salvation. On this, there can be no doubt. The standard required is simply this; perfection. Yet, humans are quite simply incapable of this. But today, like the Jews, the JWs think that by doing enough work, and being 'good enough', they can earn their salvation. The bible repudiates this repeatedly. Salvation is a gift, it is not a thing we must earn through working.


That depends on what you mean by working. The bible demands works of faith, which is basically what I am doing with you, but other forms of work don't count works without faith are as dead as is faith without works that demonstrate that faith James 2:24-26 "YOU see that a man is to be declared righteous by works, and not by faith alone. 25 In the same manner was not also Ra?hab the harlot declared righteous by works, after she had received the messengers hospitably and sent them out by another way? 26 Indeed, as the body without spirit is dead, so also faith without works is dead."

The clue to what James means is on verse 25. Rahab demonstrated faith in Jehovah not only by saving the Israelite spies, but also by obeying their instructions for salvation and sharing that faith with those of her family who were willing to follow her example, and for that obedience she was saved. Had she not obeyed the instructions for salvation , she would have died along with everyone else in Jericho.

That is what is meant by works, works demonstrating faith. Anyone who publicly demonstrates true faith in god, and in His son pleases Him. Many people, even some less experienced JWs misunderstand that one.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Clearly, you and I read this differently. When the Jews claimed he blasphemed by making himself equal with God, he at no time sought to show that they misunderstood him - again, he said, "I and the Father are one." Now, in saying this, is he trying to show that he was not God, or, was he saying to them that, "I and the father are one"? The way you interpret this simply does not fit with the facts.


What you mean is that it doesn't fit in with what you choose to believe. It fits in with the rest of the bible, John 5:19 "Therefore, in answer, Jesus went on to say to them: “Most truly I say to YOU, The Son cannot do a single thing of his own initiative, but only what he beholds the Father doing. For whatever things that One does, these things the Son also does in like manner." That makes it clear that Jesus is in subjection to his Father but one in purpose, as do the following:-

(John 5:30) I cannot do a single thing of my own initiative; just as I hear, I judge; and the judgment that I render is righteous, because I seek, not my own will, but the will of him that sent me.

(John 8:28) Therefore Jesus said: “When once YOU have lifted up the Son of man, then YOU will know that I am [he], and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me I speak these things.

(John 12:49) because I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

What? Are you saying the Pharisees wanted to kill him because he refuted their claim that he was equal to God, despite wanting to kill him for saying that he was equal with God?


No, I am saying that the Pharisees etc. wanted to kill him because he was taking away their followers, and in doing so their source of income as well as influence. They were looking for any excuse to get rid of Him because they were afraid of how the Romans would react. John 11:47 "Consequently the chief priests and the Pharisees gathered the San?he?drin together and began to say: “What are we to do, because this man performs many signs? 48 If we let him alone this way, they will all put faith in him, and the Romans will come and take away both our place and our nation".

They thought of the nation of Israel as theirs not God's.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Well, in so far as it carries the same doctrinal errors as their own bible - especially in denying the deity of Christ, it is probably in their interest to promulgate it as a legitimate bible to some extent. But, if the ED is so right and good, why did they stop using it? Why create their own version - especially when none of them were qualified to do so?[?quote]

But are they in error, or is it the other versions that are in error? Much historical evidence, some of which I have included above, tends to say that the JWs not so much altered it as corrected it. As I have shown from other scripture, again some of which I have included, the rest of the bible is very clear that God and Jesus are neither the same nor equal, but two distinct beings with one in subjection to the other.

As for deity of Christ, neither the JWs not I deny that, as I have explained before. All they and I deny is that Jesus is equal to, and co-eternal with his Father. He is not the one true God nor a part of any trinity, but as the bible says he is a god, divine, or of godlike nature as other translation put it. That is where his deity lies. Again not always fully understood by inexperienced JWs who, whilst they recognise the differences don't always understand the similarities.


@bob_the_fisherman Said

No, they claim it is unreliable because it is. Wilson was not a scholar, nor was he unbiased. And, by your own admission (though inadvertently), neither is the JW bible. In relation to Jesus statement to the thief on the cross, you said yourself that the JWs interpret this passage differently than other times that Jesus said, "Honestly I say to you," because if they interpret this consistently, it says a thing that they disagree with. This is a clear example of doctrinal issues clouding the translation. A repeated idiom of the speaker, Christ, is in this case altered to fit with the JW belief. This is not valid.


However you look at it, they claim it is unreliable because it disagrees with something they wish to teach. I have already pointed out that the ED changes the meaning between the literal interlinear and the plain English thus demonstrating its bias in favour of the false teaching of the trinity.
It is true that, as Wikipedia says "Benjamin Wilson (1817–1900) was an autodidact Biblical scholar and writer of the Emphatic Diaglott translation of the Bible (which he translated between 1856 and 1864). He was also a co-founder of the Church of God of the Abrahamic Faith."

However does that really mean anything. Most of the anti-Christian opposers in the 1st century were highly educated men versed in the bible, but with no understanding of what it taught, whereas most of the Apostles were as Acts 4:13 "Now when they beheld the outspokenness of Peter and John, and perceived that they were men unlettered and ordinary". That is no obstacle to God because I too am an autodidactic bible student. If God wants to enlighten people, however simple and unlettered, they will be enlightened, in His own good time. That too fits in with Jesus words at Luke 10:21,22 "In that very hour he became overjoyed in the holy spirit and said: “I publicly praise you, Father, Lord of heaven and earth, because you have carefully hidden these things from wise and intellectual ones, and have revealed them to babes. Yes, O Father, because to do thus came to be the way approved by you. 22 All things have been delivered to me by my Father, and who the Son is no one knows but the Father; and who the Father is, no one [knows] but the Son, and he to whom the Son is willing to reveal him.”". The educated and lettered are all too often too aware of their own abilities to be truly open to Holy Spirit, often they are also too inclined to listen to those they respect because of their academic prowess. Whereas people like me get help from it as and when God chooses. Partly I suspect because we have little real respect for the word of men and question everything.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

But, this is simply false. There is *no* objective knowledge about metaphysical facts available to humans pertaining to things external to themselves. We are biased. We are prone to being wrong. You and I are both in the same boat here.


???? That is basically what I said.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

It is true that the Koine Greek lacked punctuation, however, this only reinforces the fact that the JWs let doctrinal considerations cloud their translation. When Jesus said, "Honestly I say to you [comma]" on several occasions, there is no reason to interpolate a change in his particular idiom solely on the basis that it does not fit with a doctrine held by the translators. This is totally biased, and is just one easily demonstrable example of poor scholarship on behalf of the JWs.


Whether it fits with the doctrine held by the translators is immaterial, it is whether or not it fits in with the doctrine of Christ and the apostles that counts and as I have demonstrated so often it does. Following the doctrine of man is, as you have already stated, the mistake that the Scribes and Pharisees made, and is echoed by apostate Christianity. The fact also remains that, as I have demonstrated, and as the ED exposes by its alteration of the translation of John 1:1 from one section to the next, those translators altered things to fit the doctrine they held. The JW's merely corrected that.

True the only evidence we have is the integrity of the scriptures themselves, but that only reveals the JWs to be correct. That is why they rely only on the bible as the source of their doctrine, and why I have also long before I met them. In fact their ability to demonstrate that was the only reason I joined when I did.

@bob_the_fisherman Said

Again, I do not slander them. I question their integrity because the Christian belief demands the questioning of leaders. Paul told people to look at and consider the ways of church leaders. Well, I will obey Paul in this instance, and do that. What I find in my investigation, is people whose integrity is questionable, and whose honesty has been shown to be less than complete. Again, refer to the Mantey letter.

The JWs used him totally out of context, to support a doctrine his work rejected and refuted outright. This is, at best, a huge slight on their academic abilities if not their honesty. But the fact they also misquoted Robertson, Granville Sharp and Colwell means their integrity is shot anyway - whether it be through a lack of scholastic and intellectual rigour (in which case they had no right translating the bible and claiming it is authoritative), or, through blatant dishonesty in that they deliberately misquoted scholars. Either way, they simply do not stand up to a moment of scrutiny, and for church leaders, this ought not to be. They disqualify themselves on this basis alone.


And, this too, is further evidence of rendering the text according to bias, not according to what the text says.


The honesty of the JWs is beyond question, their ability to make mistakes and sometimes misunderstand things is not. Honesty is the entire basis for their worship, they recognise that without it no-ones worship is of any value whatever. Maybe they misunderstood what Mantey meant, I cannot say, but I do know they quoted him as they thought he meant. Of course, since that made him look apostate in the eyes of his church he would challenge that wouldn't he?

The only thing I know for sure is that despite mistakes the JWs are 100% honest in that they truly believe everything they teach, and they make sure that everything they teach fits in with the entirety of the bible, not just parts of it. The trinity as I recognised even as a child, does not fit in. Why else would the churches say it si a mystery?

Mind you they are right to call it a mystery because when taken in the light of all the rest of the bible it is a mystery how anyone can believe it.

When you claim, as you do, that the JWs have deliberately changed things to suit themselves, with the intent to deceive, as you have done a number of times, even in this post, you slander them because they have not and that is reasonably easy to demonstrate as I have to you many times. If you refuse to accept it despite the evidence maybe it is your integrity that is suspect.
bob_the_fisherman On January 30, 2023
Anatidaephobic





, Angola
#155New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 07:49:38
@MadCornishBiker Said
the NWT footnote on Exodus 3:14 says:-

The footnote on John 8:58 point to an appendix in the reference edition which reads:-


On the JWs own changes over time to the meaning of the texts above, and what at first was their bungled attempt to claim that Jesus words should be rendered "I have been" based on it being the "perfect indefinite tense" (which does not exist in Greek), see:
https://neirr.org/egoeimi.htm This page is useful, as it has actual images from the JWs own NWT showing precisely their errors, and their changes to the meaning of the text cited.

On the meaning of ego eimi, see; https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ego_eimi

Note the discussion therein, of Christ's many "ego eimi" statements, all of which are rendered in English as "I am" - "I am the vine", "I am the light", and so on...

@MadCornishBiker Said
It seems you don't fully understand it. The JW belief, and mine, is that Jesus did have a resurrection into a human body, though judging from that fact that his intimate associates didn't recognise him after that resurrection until either they were told, or they realised that his mannerisms and speech was the same it seems apparent that it was not his original body. That also fits in with the biblical promise of a general resurrection onto the earth of the masses. They will all have to be given new bodies since theirs will have disintegrated long ago.


Ok... so... what was the point of Jesus asking Thomas to touch his wounds? The wounds that were in that body bore no relationship to the wounds Jesus received, and these wounds were, therefore, not evidence of his being killed, let alone resurrected. It was, therefore, a confidence trick. The wounds were fake. Call it what you will, but according to the JWs, Jesus lied by deliberately and intentionally deceiving Thomas, and indeed, he (and God) deliberately deceives everyone else that simply reads the text as saying what it says... Do you really believe that the JWs are correct, and that Jesus lied? Why?

Also, why was the tomb empty? What happened to the body? Did God remove it to enhance the deception he played on his followers, by deceiving us all into believing the body of Christ - the very body that Christ affirmed would be raised in three days, had been raised when in fact it had not? Why would God engage in such deliberate falsehood? And, if he did, as the JWs attest, how can we trust someone we know lies to us?

@MadCornishBiker Said
The fact that none of the others had seen Jesus "stigmata" also tends to indicate that he had the power to make them appear to satisfy Thomas. No wonder the man was so surprised.


What? Could you explain that please? It does not seem to fit with the biblical account.

Luke 24:36-40: While they were still talking about this, Jesus himself stood among them and said to them "Peace be with you." They were startled and frightened, thinking they saw a ghost. He said to them, "Why are you troubled, and why do doubts rise in your minds? It is I myself! Touch me and see; a ghost does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have." When he had said this, he showed them his hands and his feet.

That they thought they saw a ghost strongly implies that they recognised him as who we was.

John 20:19-20. ...Jesus came and stood among them and said, "Peace be with you." After this, he showed them his hands and side...

And, seeing him as who he was, the text also strongly implies that they saw his wounds, otherwise, what was the point of showing them his hands etc.? Was it to show that he *didn't* have the wounds of crucifixion on his body?

Now, it is true that Jesus appeared to some other disciples without them recognising him, but, so what? Does this mean that he appeared to them in a different body? Not at all.

Luke 23:15-16. As they talked and discussed these things with each other, Jesus himself came up and walked alongside them; but they were kept from recognising him. Luke 23:30-31. When he was at the table with them, he took bread, gave thanks, broke it and began to give it to them. Then their eyes were opened and they recognised him...

Now, reading the report of Luke, does it suggest that he returned as someone other than himself? No. Again, as in other instances, it seems that the JWs get caught up in entirely the wrong aspect of the Scripture - focusing on incidental parts of the story, as though they are the great truths (like for example, their poor understanding of what Paul is discussing in 1st Corinthians 13, where the whole point is about the pre-eminence of love, but somehow, they come away with a view that prophecy no longer happens, and God no longer heals people)...

Anyway... on Luke 23, what is the focus of the passage? Is it the physical appearance of Jesus? No. It is the confusion of the disciples, and Jesus intent to explain to them what had occurred, and, more importantly, why, and how it was foretold in Scripture. Jesus walked with the disciples explaining what had happened, and opening up the scriptures to them. The fact that, after he had explained everything, then, broke bread with them, they had their eyes opened so they recognised him, suggests that it had been Jesus all along, but, as verse 16 says, they had been kept from recognising him. There is not even a suggestion that the body he was in was a body other than his own - at least, not if one looks at the entire context (and further, adds those other factors, like showing his hands, feet and side to the disciples, including Thomas). To suggest that he did this in a body not his own, is, well, a bit absurd, and is simply an invalid rendering of the text... not to mention making a liar of both God and Christ.

@MadCornishBiker Said
There are many instances where Jehovah is said to have appeared, or spoken to someone, or even have done something. There is nothing deceitful in that, it simply means that whichever spirit creature it was had Jehovah's full authority and that they were Jehovah's words not his own.


But again, this is false, and simply cannot be justified by referencing the text.

Genesis 18:17 And Jehovah said: “Am I keeping covered from Abraham what I am doing? 18 Why, Abraham is surely going to become a nation great and mighty, and all the nations of the earth must bless themselves by means of him. 19 For I have become acquainted with him in order that he may command his sons and his household after him so that they shall keep Jehovah’s way to do righteousness and judgment; in order that Jehovah may certainly bring upon Abraham what he has spoken about him.”

20 Consequently Jehovah said: “The cry of complaint about Sod´om and Go·mor´rah, yes, it is loud, and their sin, yes, it is very heavy. 21 I am quite determined to go down that I may see whether they act altogether according to the outcry over it that has come to me, and, if not, I can get to know it.”


Note here, that Jehovah refers to himself as "I". Now, if the JW understanding of this is correct, the bible lied. Only the being themselves can think thoughts, or make statements pertaining to themselves using a first person singular pronoun (that is, "I" ). So, either the bible lied, or, it was Jehovah that Abraham spoke to.

Leave aside the doctrinal issues, and the JWs interpretations of the text that fit with their own bias, and just read the text.

Where in the text in question does it say or imply that Jehovah was not Jehovah? Point to it specifically. It very strongly says, rather than merely implies, that the Jehovah to whom Abraham spoke, was not an angel, as Jehovah is distinguished from the two angels in the text. It is really quite simple, if the JWs are right, the bible has lied. So, which is it? Does the bible lie, or, are the JWs wrong?

@MadCornishBiker Said
As for Jesus and Michael. The easiest way to do that is to copy and paste from the Insight book on Michael:-


Well, I see in there a lot of supposition, and not a great deal of substance.

@MadCornishBiker Said
One assumes that the God that Adam and Eve hid from was Jehovah himself as He had not gone into his day of rest at that point (see explanation above).


So, Jesus was wrong then? Either that or he lied. I assume Adam was someone. But, if *no one* has seen the father, as Jesus says, then either Adam is not real (ie., he is no one), or, he did not see the father. So, did Jesus lie, or, are the JWs wrong?

@MadCornishBiker Said
In John 1:1 according to some translations Jesus is also called a god.


True. These renderings are most likely false though, as the "a" most likely should not be there. But, on this point, I fear that you and I will merely continue to waltz in aimless and pointless circles. I don't think either one of us is qualified enough to do anything else

@MadCornishBiker Said
You call those translations inaccurate? I say it is the other translations that are inaccurate, because like the doctored section of the ED they are translated to prove a point, and an apostate one at that. As I say, all the evidence either of us can provide is biased one way or the other, so one has to pick ones way very carefully through it.


Indeed, it is true that bias is inherent in the rendering of text - a thing that scholars seek to eliminate as much as possible. And, bias is often seen in the interpretation of text. The example from Genesis above is a clear example. I read it as merely saying what it says. You and the JWs read it in line with a doctrinal issue. Which of us is right? Personally, I will believe the bible says what it says. When it says Jehovah appeared in human form and spoke with Abraham, I believe that the bible says that Jehovah appeared in human form and spoke with Abraham. Being loathe to call either the bible or Jesus liars, I am also prepared to accept that He spoke the truth when he said that no man has seen the father - meaning that Adam did not see the father, and Abraham did not see the father, but they both saw and talked to the only 'real' existent God.

I may be wrong for believing the bible says what it says, but, if so, I am comfortable with being wrong in this instance.

@MadCornishBiker Said
Did they? well in that case they were right, as I have explained elsewhere in answer to you. However it does not mean being the same person, and never could by any twist of the language. I doubt very much if the Jews believed that either, especially since they were awaiting the son of God. The common people certainly didn't. There is no way on earth you could be equal to your father, certainly not in Jewish eyes then or now. In Jewish and Christian households the husband and father are the head of the household.


Yes, but the children are human. My father 'begot' me, and I am a human. He is also a human. I am not a lesser being. A father begets one that is like himself, that is, they are of the same kind.

Again, Paul spoke of how Jesus, in coming to earth in the form of a man, lowered himself - that is, became less than he was, and placed himself in subjection to the father. Does being in subjection mean, being of a different kind, or different essence, than the one to which we are in subjection? Not at all.

@MadCornishBiker Said
They still do call the trinity a mystery as do the CoE. I know because3 when trying to discuss it with Priests and vicars that si what they always tell me "it is a mystery we aren't meant to understand it".


Of course. And here we see one major point of issue. In the JW schema, God is rationalised. You have said before that God is explicable to humans, and, that God is not a mystery... Indeed, you said;

@MadCornishBiker Said

If it isn't possible to understand it, it isn't true. There is no mystery about God.


There is no reason to assume this is true, and indeed, it is absurd to think that a God would be entirely explicable to humans. That which is natural is not entirely explicable to us, so, how could a supernatural being be entirely explicable?

Nothing of God is a mystery..? Really..? *How* does he exist? Where is he, precisely? How did he create all that he created? Why did he create a bunch of nuffies like us (humans, I mean)? How does he know future events before they happen?

Are you really able to understand, comprehend and explain all of these things? Is there nothing that God does, or has done, or *is* for that matter, that is beyond you to comprehend? Even Paul, in 1st Corinthians (13:12-13) avowed that he only knows and sees in part. Do you or the JWs claim to know better than Paul and have perfect understanding of a supernatural being? Have you 'read the mind of God'? I think that that would come as a surprise to God, as I am pretty sure he says that no one has done that...

@MadCornishBiker Said
That was part of his mission, yes, but his mission had many different aspects, the covenant for a kingdom didn't come into it until what is often called "the last supper".


The covenant came into it before Christ was even born. See the prophecy of Isaiah 53, if nothing else.

"...He was pierced for our transgressions, he was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was upon him, and by his wounds we are healed. We all, like sheep, have gone astray, each of us has turned to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all."

One could reasonably speculate from this that dying for us was a plan that existed long before Christ was even born.

*************

I was going to leave this here, as this post is big enough, however, I think this requires a mention.

@MadCornishBiker Said
The honesty of the JWs is beyond question,


I admit that my cynical and pessimistic attributes make me suspicious of all things human (in part, because I know myself well enough to know that, despite my endeavours to be scrupulously honest, I regularly fail. I also recognise that I am not objective, and, indeed, that no human being is capable of being objective). However, even attempting to leave my cynicism behind, I still find this affirmation of the total honesty of the JW hierarchy, including those nameless, faceless men that translated the JW bible, intriguing, puzzling, and from a biblical perspective, difficult to justify. Jeremiah proclaims that the heart of a man is above all things, deceitful and desperately wicked. Christ says there is none good, and Paul laments that, whilst he tries to do good, he finds evil is his constant companion, because as a being made of flesh, he is still subject to the flesh, which by its nature is carnal, hostile to God etc.

In saying that the JWs are honest above and beyond question, are you saying what you believe, or, merely what you are taught? Do the JWs, alone among men, prove God a liar by being perfect? Are they able to attain salvation merely through their own efforts? Is sin not a problem for them, as it is for mere humans? Again, this is a case where the JWs and God seem to be in conflict - call me a fool if you will, but I will believe God ahead of mere men.

@MadCornishBiker Said
The only thing I know for sure is that despite mistakes the JWs are 100% honest in that they truly believe everything they teach, and they make sure that everything they teach fits in with the entirety of the bible, not just parts of it. The trinity as I recognised even as a child, does not fit in. Why else would the churches say it si a mystery?


And yet again, here, you and I disagree, at least in part. Whilst I am sure that the JWs believe what they teach, this says nothing about whether truth was a factor in it first being promulgated by Russell - this is the guy, remember, who said that JWs do not even need to read the bible, merely read his stuff instead. In fact, at one point he or the JW hierarchy went further, and said that if JWs stopped reading the JW material, and merely read the bible, that the JW would fall back into the errors of apostate religion. I will have to find this quote again, as to me it says much. If people merely read the bible, according to the JWs, they will believe in the trinity, salvation by Grace through faith, that Christ died for the sins of everyone so that everyone would be justified before God through faith, and that humans are too evil to save themselves or be justified before God on account of their own 'righteousness' etc... in other words, all the composite elements of Christianity. If, on the other hand, people read the JW material, they believe whatever it is the JWs believe - like for example, that humans can perfect themselves and earn salvation through works. This says much more about the JW belief than it was intended to, I believe.

@MadCornishBiker Said
and they make sure that everything they teach fits in with the entirety of the bible, not just parts of it.


Except of course those bits we have mentioned here, where God appeared as a man and spoke to Abraham, Sarah, Adam and Eve... and teaching that man can save himself, and teaching that Christ was Michael, and so on.
Electric_Banana On April 24, 2024




, New Zealand
#156New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 08:15:29
@GreatestIam2 Said



Dogma says that God evicted Satan from heaven because he would not bow to man.



Now which Bible did this come from? No wonder Satan is pissed off.
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#157New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 09:50:26
@Electric_Banana Said

Now which Bible did this come from? No wonder Satan is pissed off.



It didn't come from any dogma or from the bible, lol, it is his own take on things.
someone_else On August 30, 2012
Not a dude.


Deleted



American Alps, Washington
#158New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 14:59:10
@Electric_Banana Said

Now which Bible did this come from? No wonder Satan is pissed off.



@MadCornishBiker Said

It didn't come from any dogma or from the bible, lol, it is his own take on things.



I'm not sure if it didn't come from dogma (the concept, not the Kevin Smith movie), but I'm pretty sure it comes from the Qu'ran.
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#159New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 16:03:09
@someone_else Said

I'm not sure if it didn't come from dogma (the concept, not the Kevin Smith movie), but I'm pretty sure it comes from the Qu'ran.


I would be surprised if it came from the Q'ran, I am sure I would have remembered something that outstanding no matter what else I have forgotten from it.
someone_else On August 30, 2012
Not a dude.


Deleted



American Alps, Washington
#160New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 16:07:47
@MadCornishBiker Said

I would be surprised if it came from the Q'ran, I am sure I would have remembered something that outstanding no matter what else I have forgotten from it.



Since you don't remember, you must have never heard then.


"According to basic Islamic teachings, God created at least three intelligent species: angels, jinns, and humans, of which the latter two have been granted free will to choose between good and evil.[3][4]
Iblis was a jinn and a devoted servant of God, according to the Qur’an, which Muslims take as the authoritative word of God.[5][6][7] However, according to other non-Qur??nic sources he was a "disobedient angel".[2][8]
The angels do not have free will and simply do not sin because they were not granted the freedom by God to disobey. When God created Adam (see Islamic view of Adam), He commanded all the angels and Iblis (whose rank allowed him to be considered equal to that of an angel) to prostrate to Adam as was termed "the Best of Creation". All the angels did so. The jinn Iblis refused to obey, and was brought in to a state of rebellion against God. For this God cast him out of the Garden, and intended to punish him. Iblis begged God to delay the punishment until the Last Day (the Day of Judgment): this God granted, as He is Most Merciful (ar-Ra??m)."
The Devil in Islamic Theology

*edited for spelling*
GreatestIam2 On January 06, 2023




Ottawa, Canada
#161New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 16:58:58
@Electric_Banana Said

Now which Bible did this come from? No wonder Satan is pissed off.


If you Google Satan bow, you will see that Christian dogma as well as Islam use Satan not bowing to man as one of the possible reasons for his eviction from heaven. Islam is stronger in that belief and Christianity is weaker yet that is the dogma that was taught to me.

Regards
DL

P. S.

someone else

I posted before seeing your reply.

Well done and thanks.

Regards
DL
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#162New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 17:59:09
@GreatestIam2 Said

If you Google Satan bow, you will see that Christian dogma as well as Islam use Satan not bowing to man as one of the possible reasons for his eviction from heaven. Islam is stronger in that belief and Christianity is weaker yet that is the dogma that was taught to me.

Regards
DL

P. S.

someone else

I posted before seeing your reply.

Well done and thanks.

Regards
DL



I've just Googled it and whilst my memory is apparently faulty and it is in Islamic Doctrine, no mention of it in any form of "Christian" dogma came up.
MadCornishBiker On January 14, 2014

Banned



St Columb Road, United Kingdom
#163New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 18:02:48
@someone_else Said

Since you don't remember, you must have never heard then.


"According to basic Islamic teachings, God created at least three intelligent species: angels, jinns, and humans, of which the latter two have been granted free will to choose between good and evil.[3][4]
Iblis was a jinn and a devoted servant of God, according to the Qur’an, which Muslims take as the authoritative word of God.[5][6][7] However, according to other non-Qur??nic sources he was a "disobedient angel".[2][8]
The angels do not have free will and simply do not sin because they were not granted the freedom by God to disobey. When God created Adam (see Islamic view of Adam), He commanded all the angels and Iblis (whose rank allowed him to be considered equal to that of an angel) to prostrate to Adam as was termed "the Best of Creation". All the angels did so. The jinn Iblis refused to obey, and was brought in to a state of rebellion against God. For this God cast him out of the Garden, and intended to punish him. Iblis begged God to delay the punishment until the Last Day (the Day of Judgment): this God granted, as He is Most Merciful (ar-Ra??m)."
The Devil in Islamic Theology

*edited for spelling*


I am sure there are many things I have heard that I don't remember, my mind only tends to retain what it finds useful, and since I rejected the Q'ran as a true religious text I am not completely surprised, just somewhat.

Why would God not create all creatures with free will? I think you'll find He did.
someone_else On August 30, 2012
Not a dude.


Deleted



American Alps, Washington
#164New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 18:08:06
@MadCornishBiker Said

I am sure there are many things I have heard that I don't remember, my mind only tends to retain what it finds useful, and since I rejected the Q'ran as a true religious text I am not completely surprised, just somewhat.

Why would God not create all creatures with free will? I think you'll find He did.



I think you'll find, if you read the part of the post that I typed myself, that I didn't mention free will at all. I simply provided the source for the theology that you'd not heard.
GreatestIam2 On January 06, 2023




Ottawa, Canada
#165New Post! Dec 01, 2011 @ 19:37:34
@MadCornishBiker Said

I've just Googled it and whilst my memory is apparently faulty and it is in Islamic Doctrine, no mention of it in any form of "Christian" dogma came up.


I saw some. Yahoo question if I recall correctly.

Did you do any reading on what you found?

What do you conclude?
Satan working for God or God somehow surprised by finding his own iniquity within his creation?
Or if you can't handle that, just being surprised to find iniquity in Satan.

God's loyal opposition or a true rebel that God rewarded by God giving him dominion here on earth?

Regards
DL
Reply to Topic<< Previous Topic | Next Topic >>
Pages: << · 1 2 3 ...9 10 11 12 13 14 · >>

1 browsing (0 members - 1 guest)

Quick Reply
Be Respectful of Others

      
Subscribe to topic prefs

Similar Topics
    Forum Topic Last Post Replies Views
New posts   Politics
Sun Oct 23, 2011 @ 04:41
112 10940
New posts   Jokes & Humor
Thu May 27, 2010 @ 18:52
21 4188
New posts   Random
Mon Jun 11, 2012 @ 01:10
7 2428
New posts   Politics
Mon May 05, 2008 @ 23:48
16 3960
New posts   Politics
Sat Sep 22, 2007 @ 02:20
1 1305