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coin flipping

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angel21 On May 22, 2009




Co. Durham, United Kingdom
#16New Post! Apr 26, 2009 @ 22:26:51
I got 50 50 1st time then 46 54 2nd time then 37 63
El_Tino On October 12, 2023
booyaka!





Albuquerque, New Mexico
#17New Post! May 22, 2009 @ 18:40:40
3 coins, with joint probability, so we multiply probabilities.

.5 * .5 * .5 = .125 or 12.5 times for heads, and 12.5 for tails.
Jennifer1984 On July 20, 2022
Returner and proud





Penzance, United Kingdom
#18New Post! Jul 16, 2009 @ 06:56:53
That is an impossible question to answer with any certainty. Probability can calculate the statistical likelihood of the outcome, but even that is not a certainty. The only thing that is known, is that at every flip of the coin, the odds on the coin coming down heads or tails are evens.

Where odds are concerned, every flip of the coin is a new flip. The result of the previous flip does not influence the new flip in any way whatsoever. Each flip of a coin is independent of the last.

However, the laws of probability are different to the laws of odds. Odds affect only the individual occurrence, Probability is affected by repetition, therefore it is possible to calculate the likelihood that a second, third, fourth (ad infinitum)flip will produce a different outcome to the preceding event.

I'll leave the maths of probability to the budding bookmakers amongst us. Enjoy.


.
Eimos On July 29, 2009




Coventry, United Kingdom
#19New Post! Jul 16, 2009 @ 17:53:12
Supposedly, if you did enough "flips" you'd get an even distribution of heads-tails. The coin itself can't affect the outcome, so it'll be 50-50.
The evens-odds thing is a bit different, but essentially you'd be looking at 50-50 again, as the 4 outcomes are all heads, all tails, 2 tail + 1 head and 2 heads + 1 tail. So again you'll get 50-50.

Does that help?
Jennifer1984 On July 20, 2022
Returner and proud





Penzance, United Kingdom
#20New Post! Jul 17, 2009 @ 11:13:04
Supposedly, if you did enough "flips" you'd get an even distribution of heads-tails. The coin itself can't affect the outcome, so it'll be 50-50.
The evens-odds thing is a bit different, but essentially you'd be looking at 50-50 again, as the 4 outcomes are all heads, all tails, 2 tail + 1 head and 2 heads + 1 tail. So again you'll get 50-50. <<< Eimos


If the number of flips were infinite, Eimos, you would undoubtedly be right, but in the case of the question put by the OP, he specified that there were to be 100 flips..... a finite number. This brings probability into the equation.

A 50 - 50 spread would be an evens bet, but how likely is that..? What about 49 heads and 51 tails..? What is the probability of that..? or 48 - 52 ?

I'm sure you get my drift.

.
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