@bob_the_fisherman Said
MCB. This is the quote that you cut and pasted, and yet cannot see or find. If you go to your post and have a look for this section, you will find it, because it is there.
While we are at it, I would recommend that you go to this page https://4witness.org/jwquestions/jw_qtrinitylies.php as well.
It looks at many of the arguments the JWs use, and shows why they are wrong. And, unlike the JWs who use quotes without references (which is at best, very poor scholarship as it means that people cannot verify your work), these guys not only give the exact reference, they also give PDF documents showing both the JWs words, and the words of the the authors the JWs mention, which show that the JWs are wrong.
I realise that you are unlikely to accept it, as no amount of evidence will convince you of what is right, true and obvious to all people able to think rationally about the issue, however, it suitably shows any rational thinker that, beyond doubt, the JW organisation is corrupt or moronic.
What you make of it is entirely up to you.
Fair enough, I just hadn't found it.
As to the questions you point me to, havng read through them there is a lot of obviously faulty reasoning in there, mixed with a lot of wishful thinking. I'll explain what I mean later in this post, but in the meantime see if you can spot it.
Unfortunately few people define the Athanasian Creed the way they do on that site. Most people see the trinity, as defined in the Creed as three persons in one, that si not correct. It is true that Christ said that he and his Father were "one" but the rest of his descriptions of thier relations betray that they were one solely in purpose.
The explanation on that site seems to be interpreting it that way, and with that the JWs would have no argument.
Now to the numbered questions.
1. Yes, that is what they apppear to say.
2. Because Clement did in fact say "equality of substance" abnd that too the Jws would not argue with, however Clement did not say that Christ was of equal rank to his Father, just substance, which is hardly surprising since "God is a spirit" and so are Christ and all the angels - common substance. IS Clement therefore suggesting that the Angles are also equal to God since they share the same substance? If he was, where does that stop? Since God created everything frm His substance it could be argued that everything in creation shares it in one form or another.
3. Simple. He taught that because he was teaching a falsehood, whether or not he realised it.
4. There are a number of problems here. The Jws do not say that no-one knew of the trinity teaching, simply that it was not a part of Christian Doctrine before the 4th century. There is not doubt that some Greek educated scholars had tried to apply it to God and Christ, but Generally the argument was, until the Athanasian Creed became part of the Christian Doctrine in the 4th century was just of the equality of Christ and God, with the Holy Spirit hardly getting a look in. The sites claim that the trinity was known throughout
5. I did find this paragraph interesting because of the part they chose to highlight with undermines the basis of the trinity, the equality of God and Christ because the last line or so says "the Son is the second, by whom all things were made according to the will of the Father" Yes exactly, as Christ later said he could do nothing of his own origination but did only what his Father told him. Deffinitely not the description of an equal.
6. How does Jehovah turning to His son and saying "let us make man in our image" say anything about the trinity. It certanly doesn't say what Tertullian is making it say, merely that the son was there and working under his Father's direction.
Tertulllian's whole language calling God the first and Christ the second speaks of a hierarchy with God on top and Christ immediately below not of equality.
7. God and Christ, and all the angles are of one, substance as they are all spirit beings, as scripture tells us. However nowhere is the Holy Spirit described as a spirit being.
8. That is not an accurate translation of Exodus 3:14 as the followng point out:-
I SHALL PROVE TO BE WHAT I SHALL PROVE TO BE.” Heb., ? ? ? ('Eh?yeh' 'Asher' 'Eh?yeh'
, God’s own self-designation;
Leeser, “I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE”;
Rotherham, “I Will Become whatsoever I please.” Gr., E?go' ei?mi ho on, “I am The Being,” or, “I am The Existing One”; Lat., e'go sum qui sum, “I am Who I am.” 'Eh?yeh' comes from the Heb. verb ha?yah', “become; prove to be.” Here 'Eh?yeh' is in the imperfect state, first person sing., meaning “I shall become”; or, “I shall prove to be.” The reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others. Compare Ge 2:4 ftn, “Jehovah,” where the kindred, but different, Heb. verb ha?wah' appears in the divine name.
9. The Watchtower certainly points to that as a possibility, as do many other versions of John 1:1, none of which talk of the equality of God and Christ, and therefore none of which the JWs argue with:
Analytical Literal Translation (the parts in brackets are the most telling as they give alternate readings) "In the beginning was the Word [or, the Expression of [divine] Logic], and the Word was with [or, in communion with] God, and the Word was God [or, was as to His essence God]."
Emphatic Diaglott (interlinear section) "Diaglott(i) 1 In a beginning was the Word, and the Word was with the God, and a god was the Word."
6A Jesus—A Godlike One; Divine
Joh 1:1—“and the Word was a god (godlike; divine)”
Gr., ??? ???? ?? ? ????? (kai the?os? en ho lo?gos)
1808 “and the word was a god” The New Testament, in An
Improved Version, Upon the
Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s
New Translation: With a
Corrected Text, London.
1864 “and a god was the Word” The Emphatic Diaglott (J21,
interlinear reading), by
Benjamin Wilson, New York and
London.
1935 “and the Word was divine” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago.
1950 “and the Word was a god” New World Translation of the Christian Greek Scriptures, Brooklyn.
1975 “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word” Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz,Göttingen, Germany.
1978 “and godlike sort was the Logos” Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Johannes Schneider,Berlin.
1979 “and a god was the Logos” Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Jürgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany.
10. No it isn't. The Journal says exactly what is reproduced there, That is also why so many other translations have recorded John 1:1 differently to the common version, as shown above.
As I say at the start, there is a lot of faulty reasoning in these arguments reasoning is biased towards one outcome and doesn't allow for the fact that the outcome may be diferent, as in fact in most cases it is. Most of the statements that they rely on are ambiguous or based on assumption.
They even seem to imply that the JWs believe something other than they do.
The JW's objections to the trinity teaching are simply that:
a: It makes the Christ equal to God even though he and the Apostles taught that he wasn't. This in effect drags God down ot Christ's level. Not much fo a downgrade admittedly, but one none the less.
b: It denies, that Christ was created, which the Apostles taught He was.
c: It makes the Holy Spirit out to be a sapient entity with a mind of it's own, which it is not, it is simply God's active force.
Does the Bible teach that the “Holy Spirit” is a person?
Some individual texts that refer to the holy spirit (“Holy Ghost,” KJ) might seem to indicate personality. For example, the holy spirit is referred to as a helper (Greek, pa?ra?kle?tos; “Comforter,” KJ; “Advocate,” JB, NE) that ‘teaches,’ ‘bears witness,’ ‘speaks’ and ‘hears.’ (John 14:16, 17, 26; 15:26; 16:13) But other texts say that people were “filled” with holy spirit, that some were ‘baptized’ with it or “anointed” with it. (Luke 1:41; Matt. 3:11; Acts 10:38)
These latter references to holy spirit definitely do not fit a person. To understand what the Bible as a whole teaches, all these texts must be considered.
What is the reasonable conclusion? That the first texts cited here employ a figure of speech personifying God’s holy spirit, his active force, as the Bible also personifies wisdom, sin, death, water, and blood.
The Holy Scriptures tell us the personal name of the Father—Jehovah. They inform us that the Son is Jesus Christ. But nowhere in the Scriptures is a personal name applied to the holy spirit.
Acts 7:55, 56 reports that Stephen was given a vision of heaven in which he saw “Jesus standing at God’s right hand.” But he made no mention of seeing the holy spirit. (See also Revelation 7:10; 22:1, 3.)
The New Catholic Encyclopedia admits: “The majority of N[ew] T[estament] texts reveal God’s spirit as something, not someone; this is especially seen in the parallelism between the spirit and the power of God.” (1967, Vol. XIII, p. 575) It also reports: “The Apologists [Greek Christian writers of the second century] spoke too haltingly of the Spirit; with a measure of anticipation, one might say too impersonally.”—Vol. XIV, p. 296.