Sorry if this topic has been covered before. However, I've looked through the pas three pages and didn't find anything about this.
Anyway, I recently read about the Defense of Marriage Act and I'm wondering this; how the hell did congress manage to pass this law? I mean, it is the most unconstitutional act I have ever seen. This isn't even my opinion. Look at the wording of one of its main provisions:
"No State, territory, or possession of the United States, or Indian tribe, shall be required to give effect to any public act, record, or judicial proceeding of any other State, territory, possession, or tribe respecting a relationship between persons of the same sex that is treated as a marriage under the laws of such other State, territory, possession, or tribe, or a right or claim arising from such relationship."
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Defense_of_Marriage_Act
Now let us look at Article 4 section 1 of the constitution:
"Article IV
Section 1. Full faith and credit shall be given in each state to the public acts, records, and judicial proceedings of every other state. And the Congress may by general laws prescribe the manner in which such acts, records, and proceedings shall be proved, and the effect thereof. "
https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/constitution.articleiv.html
How did this happen? Just look at the wording itself! Some people may say that there are laws that are unconstitutional but is there anything out there that is so incongruous with the spirit and intention behind the constitution?
Discuss.
Note: This is not a discussion on gay rights. This is a discussion on the constitutionality of the Defense of Marriage Act.